Hi,I am glad that TLAPS doesn’t prove this because it’s wrong. As a simple counter-example considerP(x) == 1Q(x) == 2Clearly, you have P(x) # Q(x) for any x but we do not expect to prove 1 = ~2.What TLAPS should prove isASSUME NEW P(), NEW Q()PROVE \A x : ~(P(x) <=> Q(x)) => (P(x) <=> ~Q(x))StephanOn 1 Dec 2022, at 19:58, jack malkovick <sillym...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:How could I help TLAPS to prove this simple theorem?THEOREM TT ==
ASSUME
NEW P(_), NEW Q(_)
PROVE
\A x : (P(x) # Q(x)) => (P(x) = ~Q(x))
PROOF
OBVIOUSPS. it can prove with no problem the reverse implication\A x : (P(x) = ~Q(x)) => (P(x) # Q(x))--
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